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ABFM Family Medicine Board Certification Exam Number of questions: 200 questions Percent 01. Basic science aspects of vascular neurology 4-6% 02. Risk factors and epidemiology 8-12% 03. Clinical features of cerebrovascular diseases 8-12% 04. Evaluation of the patient with cerebrovascular disease 13-17% 05. Causes of stroke 18-22% 06. Complications of stroke 4-6% 07. Treatment of patients with stroke 28-32% 08. Recovery, regenerative approaches, and rehabilitation 4-6% TOTAL 100% Content Areas 01. Basic science aspects of vascular neurology A. Vascular neuroanatomy 1. Extracranial arterial anatomy 2. Intracranial arterial anatomy 3. Collaterals 4. Alterations of vascular anatomy 5. Venous anatomy 6. Spinal cord vascular anatomy 7. Specific vascular-brain anatomic correlations 8. End vessel syndromes B. Stroke pathophysiology 1. Cerebral blood flow a. Vascular smooth muscle control b. Vasodilation and vasoconstriction c. Autoregulation d. Vasospasm e. Rheology f. Blood flow in stroke 2. Blood-brain barrier in stroke 3. Coagulation cascade a. Clotting factors b. Platelet function c. Endothelium function d. Biochemical factors 4. Metabolic and cellular consequences of ischemia a. Ischemic cascade b. Reperfusion changes c. Electrophysiology d. Gene regulation 5. Inflammation and stroke 6. Brain edema and increased ICP a. Secondary effects 7. Restoration and recovery following stroke 8. Secondary consequences from intracranial bleeding C. Neuropathology of stroke 1. Vascular neuropathology 2. Atherosclerosis and atherosclerotic plaque 3. Brain and meningeal biopsy a. Indications 4. Pathological/imaging/clinical correlations 02. Prevention, risk factors, and epidemiology A. Populations at risk for stroke 1. Non-modifiable risk factors 2. Age, gender, ethnicity, geography, family history B. Modifiable risk factors for stroke 1. Hypertension 2. Diabetes mellitus 3. Cholesterol 4. Homocysteine 5. Obesity 6. Alcohol abuse 7. Tobacco use 8. Drug abuse 9. Exercise and other lifestyle factors C. Infections predisposing to stroke D. Genetic factors predicting stroke E. Stroke as a complication of other medical illness F. Special populations at risk for stroke 1. Children and adolescents 2. Young adults 3. Pregnancy G. Stroke education programs and regional health services 1. Screening 2. Medical economics 3. Primary versus high risk prevention 4. National stroke programs H. Concepts of clinical research 1. Use and interpretation of statistics 2. Clinical trial design and methodology 3. Understanding the medical literature 4. Rules of evidence and guidelines 5. Rating instruments and stroke scales I. Outcomes 1. Prognosis 2. Mortality and morbidity of stroke subtypes 03. Clinical features of cerebrovascular diseases A. Neuro-otology 1. Head and neck pathology 2. Vertigo and hearing loss in stroke B. Neuro-ophthalmology 1. Retinal changes of vascular disease, including arterial hypertension and retinal embolism 2. Other ocular manifestations of vascular disease a. Ischemic oculopathy b. Horner syndrome c. Cavernous sinus syndrome 3. Disorders of ocular motility 4. Visual field defects C. Transient ischemic attack (TIA) 1. General features of TIA 2. Carotid circulation TIA including amaurosis fugax 3. Vertebrobasilar circulation TIA 4. Asymptomatic carotid bruit or stenosis 5. Differential diagnosis of TIA D. Ischemic stroke syndromes—cerebral hemispheres 1. Cortical stroke syndromes a. Branch cortical artery syndromes b. Watershed syndromes 2. Subcortical stroke syndromes a. Lacunar strokes b. Striatocapsular infarctions c. Multiple lacunar infarcts 3. Major hemispheric syndromes a. Internal carotid artery occlusion b. Middle cerebral, anterior cerebral, or posterior cerebral artery 4. Behavioral and cognitive impairments following stroke 5. Bi-hemispheric stroke, including hypotensive events 6. Multifocal or diffuse disease E. Ischemic stroke syndromes—brainstem and cerebellum 1. Basilar artery occlusion a. Locked-in syndrome b. Major brainstem strokes 2. Vertebral artery occlusion 3. Branch brainstem stroke syndromes 4. Syndromes from cerebellar arteries (brainstem/cerebellum) 5. Top-of-the-basilar syndromes 6. Thalamic syndromes F. Ischemic stroke syndromes of the spinal cord G. Vascular dementia (vascular cognitive impairment) and vascular cognitive syndromes 1. Multi-infarction (multiple subcortical infarctions) 2. White matter disease (leukoaraiosis, Binswanger subcortical leukoencephalopathy) H. Features differentiating hemorrhagic or ischemic stroke I. Intracerebral hemorrhage 1. Hypertension 2. Cerebral amyloid angiopathy 3. Coagulopathy/bleeding diatheses 4. Locations a. Putamen b. Thalamus c. Lobar and white matter d. Brainstem e. Cerebellum J. Subarachnoid hemorrhage 1. Saccular aneurysms 2. Other aneurysms 3. Unruptured aneurysm 4. Trauma K. Vascular malformations 1. Hemorrhage 2. Other presentations L. Primary intraventricular hemorrhage M. Subdural or epidural hematoma N. Venous thrombosis 1. Cavernous sinus 2. Superior sagittal sinus 3. Other sinus 4. Cortical thrombophlebitis 5. Deep cerebral veins O. Carotid cavernous or dural fistulas P. Pituitary apoplexy Q. Hypertensive encephalopathy and eclampsia R. Clinical presentations of primary and multisystem vasculitides S. Hypoxia-ischemia 1. Cardiac arrest 2. Carbon monoxide poisoning 3. Cortical laminar necrosis 4. Other T. Brain death U. MELAS and metabolic disorders causing neurologic symptoms V. Nonstroke presentations of vascular disease W. Cardiovascular diseases 1. Heart disease, including coronary artery disease 2. Cardiac complications of stroke 3. Peripheral arterial disease 4. Aortic disease 5. Venous disease X. Vascular presentations of other diseases of the central nervous system Y. Infectious diseases and stroke Z. Migraine 04. Evaluation of the patient with cerebrovascular disease A. Evaluation of the brain and spinal cord 1. Computed tomography of brain a. Acute changes of ischemic stroke b. Acute changes of hemorrhagic stroke c. Chronic changes of stroke d. Complications of stroke e. Vascular imaging by CT f. Differential diagnosis by CT g. CT perfusion h. MR perfusion 2. Computed tomography of spine and spinal cord 3. Magnetic resonance imaging of brain a. MRI sequences—T1, T2, FLAIR, DWI, PWI, gradient echo b. MR spectroscopy c. Acute changes of ischemic stroke d. Acute changes of hemorrhagic stroke i. Changes affected by time e. Functional MRI f. Vascular imaging by CT g. Vascular imaging by MRI 4. PET and SPECT 5. EEG and evoked potentials—stroke a. Changes in stroke b. Complications of stroke c. Monitoring 6. Examination of the CSF 7. ICP monitoring B. Evaluation of the vasculature—occlusive or non-occlusive 1. Arteriography and venography a. Cerebral b. Spinal cord 2. Extracranial ultrasonography a. Duplex and other imaging b. Collateral flow challenges c. Monitoring 3. Intracranial ultrasonography a. Collateral flow changes b. Contrast enhancement c. Monitoring 4. CT angiography and CT venography 5. MR angiography and MR venography C. Evaluation of the heart and great vessels 1. Electrocardiography a. Monitoring b. Holter and event monitors 2. TTE and TEE a. Contrast-enhanced studies 3. Other chest imaging studies a. Chest x-ray b. Chest CT c. Chest MRI 4. Other studies a. Blood pressure monitoring b. Blood cultures c. Testing for ischemic heart disease d. Peripheral artery disease D. Other diagnostic studies 1. Hematologic studies a. Blood count b. Platelet count c. Special coagulation studies d. Antiplatelet (aspirin, clopidogrel) resistance studies 2. Immunological studies a. Inflammatory markers b. Other autoimmune studies (multisystem) c. Serologic studies 3. Biochemical studies a. Glucose b. Cholesterol c. Blood gases d. Hepatic and renal tests 4. Urine tests 5. Biopsies 6. Evaluation for the complications of stroke 7. Evaluation for the consequences of stroke a. Swallowing b. Orthopedic c. Other 8. Genetic testing 05. Causes of stroke A. Atherosclerosis—ischemic stroke 1. Evaluation of patients prior to non-cerebrovascular operations 2. Asymptomatic bruit or stenosis 3. Aortic atherosclerosis B. Non-atherosclerotic vasculopathies—ischemic stroke 1. Non-inflammatory a. Dissection b. Moyamoya disease c. Fibromuscular dysplasia d. Trauma e. Radiation-induced vasculopathy f. Saccular aneurysm g. Other 2. Infectious a. Syphilis b. Herpes zoster c. AIDS d. Cysticercosis e. Bacterial meningitis f. Aspergillosis g. Mucormycosis h. Cat-scratch disease i. Behçet syndrome j. Other 3. Inflammatory, non-infectious (angiitis) a. Isolated CNS vasculitis b. Multisystem vasculitis c. Cogan syndrome d. Eales disease e. Polyarteritis nodosa f. Wegener granulomatosis with polyangiitis g. Eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis (Churg-Strauss syndrome) h. Takayasu disease i. Systemic lupus erythematosus j. Scleroderma k. Rheumatoid arthritis l. Mixed connective tissue disease m. Ulcerative colitis and regional enteritis n. Sarcoidosis o. Other C. Migraine D. Other causes of ischemic stroke 1. Kawasaki disease 2. Lyme disease 3. Susac syndrome E. Genetic and metabolic causes of stroke 1. CADASIL 2. MELAS 3. Fabry-Anderson disease 4. Homocystinuria 5. Kearns-Sayre syndrome 6. Myoclonus epilepsy with ragged red fibers 7. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome, type IV 8. Marfan syndrome 9. CARASIL 10. Other monogenetic small vessel brain diseases 11. Other F. Drugs that cause stroke, including drugs of abuse G. Cerebral amyloid angiopathy—infarction or hemorrhage H. Cardioembolic causes of stroke 1. Atrial fibrillation 2. Cardiovascular procedures and operations 3. Acute myocardial infarction 4. Dilated cardiomyopathy 5. Rheumatic mitral or aortic stenosis 6. Infective endocarditis 7. Libman-Sacks endocarditis 8. Non-bacterial thrombotic endocarditis 9. Mechanical or bioprosthetic valves 10. Atrial myxoma 11. Sick sinus syndrome 12. Mitral valve prolapse 13. Patent foramen ovale, including atrial septal aneurysm 14. Congenital heart diseases, including cyanotic heart disease 15. Other I. Prothrombotic causes of stroke 1. Inherited a. Sickle cell disease b. Factor V Leiden—activated protein C resistance c. Prothrombin gene mutation d. Protein S, C, antithrombin e. Thalassemia f. Iron deficiency anemia g. Others 2. Acquired a. Pregnancy b. Cancer c. Dehydration d. Thrombocytosis e. Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura f. Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia and thrombosis (HITT) g. Leukemia h. Disseminated intravascular coagulation i. Nephrotic syndrome j. Hemolytic uremic syndrome k. Sepsis and inflammation l. Other 3. Autoimmune causes of thrombosis a. Lupus and lupus anticoagulant, Sneddon syndrome and antiphospholipid antibodies b. Others 4. Iatrogenic/drugs/toxins a. Antineoplastic b. Prothrombotic agents c. Others J. Bleeding diatheses 1. Inherited a. Hemophilia b. Sickle cell disease c. Thalassemia d. von Willebrands disease e. Others 2. Acquired a. Leukemia b. Thrombocytopenia c. Disseminated intravascular coagulation d. Others 3. Systemic diseases 4. Iatrogenic/drugs/toxins a. Anticoagulants b. Antiplatelet aggregating agents c. Thrombolytic agents d. Drugs of abuse e. Others K. Aneurysms 1. Saccular 2. Infected 3. Traumatic 4. Neoplastic 5. Dolichoectatic 6. Dissecting L. Vascular malformations 1. Arteriovenous 2. Developmental venous anomaly 3. Cavernous 4. Telangiectasia 5. Dural arteriovenous fistula M. Trauma and intracranial bleeding N. Moyamoya disease and syndrome O. Hypertensive hemorrhage P. Other causes of hemorrhage 1. Vasculitis 2. Tumors a. Primary b. Metastatic 3. Iatrogenic Q. Genetic diseases causing hemorrhagic stroke 06. Complications of stroke A. Early neurologic complications 1. Brain edema, increased ICP, and herniation 2. Hydrocephalus 3. Seizures 4. Hemorrhagic transformation 5. Recurrent infarction 6. Recurrent hemorrhage 7. Other B. Early medical complications 1. Cardiac 2. Gastrointestinal 3. Pulmonary 4. Electrolyte 5. Other C. Chronic neurologic sequelae D. Chronic medical sequelae 07. Treatment of patients with stroke A. Outpatient management 1. Patient educational materials B. Medical therapies to prevent stroke 1. Antiplatelet agents a. Aspirin b. Clopidogrel c. Ticlodipine d. Dipyridamole e. Cilostazol f. Prasugrel g. Ticagrelor h. Others 2. Anticoagulant agents a. Warfarin b. Heparin c. LMW heparins d. Direct thrombin inhibitors e. Factor X inhibitors 3. Thrombolytic agents 4. Neuroprotective agents and other acute treatments 5. Cardioactive agents 6. Medications to prevent stroke by treating risk factors a. Hyperlipidemia b. Diabetes mellitus c. Hypertension d. Smoking e. Hyperhomocysteinemia f. Antiinflammatory g. Alcohol dependence and detoxification 7. Medications to treat autoimmune diseases and vasculitis 8. Medications to treat complications of stroke a. Anticonvulsants b. Antidepressants c. Brain edema and increased ICP i. Hypertonic saline ii. Mannitol 9. Medications to Excellerate or restore neurologic function or to augment rehabilitation 10. Medications to prevent rebleeding or vasospasm following a hemorrhage a. Aminocaproic acid b. Tranexamic acid c. Nimodipine 11. Antimigraine medications 12. Vitamins 13. Interactions between medications C. Hyperacute treatment of ischemic stroke 1. Emergency department a. Intravenous thrombolytics b. Intra-arterial thrombolytics c. Mechanical thrombectomy d. Anticoagulants and antiplatelet agents e. Antihypertensives f. Anticonvulsants g. Other 2. Hospitalization – general management a. Prevention of recurrent stroke b. Prevention of deep vein thrombosis and pulmonary embolism c. Blood pressure management d. Treatment of complications e. Treatment of comorbid diseases f. Treatment of risk factors for stroke g. Other 3. Intensive care unit a. Osmotic agents b. Steroids c. Sedation d. Blood products e. Anti-vasospasm therapy f. Management of ventriculostomy g. Temperature control h. Antiarrhythmics i. Ventilator management j. Pressors k. Antibiotics l. Other 4. Neurosurgical management a. Hemorrhage i. Evacuation ii. Ventriculostomy b. Ruptured aneurysms i. Management of vasospasm c. Vascular malformations d. Surgical treatment of brain edema – decompressive craniectomy e. Other D. Chronic care 1. Antidepressants 2. Sedatives 3. Stimulants E. Treatment of venous thrombosis F. Treatment of spinal cord vascular disease G. Treatment of pituitary apoplexy H. Professionalism, ethics, systems-based practice 1. Palliative care 2. End-of-life decisions 3. Advanced directives, informed consent, regulations 4. Other 08. Recovery, regenerative approaches, and rehabilitation A. Functional assessment B. Regeneration and plasticity C. Predicting outcomes D. Pharmacologic effects on recovery E. Rehabilitation principles F. Emerging approaches | ||||||||
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Other Certification-Board examsBCBA Board Certification in Business Valuation (BCBA)CDL Commercial Drivers License DMV Driver Motor Vehicle FSOT Foreign Service Officer Test ICTS Illinois Certification Testing System ISEE Independent School Entrance Examination MTEL Massachusetts Tests for Educator Licensure NCE National Counselor SBAC Smarter Balanced Assessment Consortium STAAR State of Texas Assessments ofAcademic Readiness BCB-Analyst Board Certified Behavior Analyst (BCBA) ABCTE American Board for Certification of Teacher Excellence Exam ABFM Family Medicine Board Certification Exam ABPN-VNE American Board of Psychiatry and Neurology - Vascular Neurology Exam CSLE National-Interstate Council Cosmetology Licensing Exam NAB-NHA Nursing Home Administrator (NAB) NCC Certified in NeuroCritical Care (ABEM) NLN-PAX Nursing School Entrance Test NRP Nationally Registered Paramedics (EMT) RACP Royal Australasian College of Physicians test (FRACP) TCRN Trauma Certified Registered Nurse Exam | ||||||||
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ABFM Dumps ABFM Braindumps ABFM Real Questions ABFM Practice Test ABFM dumps free Certification-Board ABFM Family Medicine Board Certification Exam http://killexams.com/pass4sure/exam-detail/ABFM Question: 1189 Which of the following is not a covered service under theMedicare hospice benefit? A. Home health aide services B. Homemaker services C. Physical therapy D. Laboratory testing E. Transportation for physician office visits Answer: E Explanation: The hospice benefit covers all testing, treatment, medications, and home-based support services necessary for palliative care of the terminal illness. Transportation costs are not covered. Question: 1190 history of cigarette smoking who presents to your officefor a routine physical examination. Ordering a chest x-ray towhich of the following? A. Primary prevention; supported by U.S. Preventive Services B. Primary prevention; not supported by USPSTF guidelines C. Secondary prevention; supported by USPSTF guidelines D. Secondary prevention; not supported by USPSTF guidelines F. screen for lung cancer for Mr. would be best described as Answer: D Explanation: Numerous studies have shown routine chest x-rays to not be beneficial in screening for lung cancer. Screening for asymptomatic disease is considered secondary prevention. Question: 1191 The ability of a test to detect disease when the disease istruly present is a description of which of the following? A. Sensitivity B. Specificity C. Positive predictive value D. Negative predictive value E. Selection bias Answer: A Explanation: The sensitivity of a test reflects its ability to detect disease when the disease is present. For example, if a rapid strep test is positive in 80 out of 100 patients with culture-proven streptococcal pharyngitis, the sensitivity of the rapid test is 80/100 or 80%. Question: 1192 In a study to determine the accuracy of fecal occult bloodtesting (FOBT) to detect polyps in the colon, 1,100 adults olderthan age 65 completed a six-card FOBT screening, followed by afull colonoscopy 1 week later to detect polyps. From the resultslisted in Table 8.1, which of the following is true? A. Sensitivity of FOBT equals 60/60 (50%). B. Specificity of FOBT equals 40/60 (67%). C. Positive predictive value of FOBT equals 60/940 (6%). D. Negative predictive value of FOBT equals 940/980 (96%). E. The prevalence of polyps cannot be determined. Answer: D Explanation: Colonoscopy is considered a gold standard test for colonic polyps and determines the prevalence of polyps in the study group (100/1,100). Sensitivity, the ability of FOBT to detect polyps when they are present, is 60/100 or 60%. Specificity, the ability of FOBT to indicate nondisease when no polyps are present, is 940/1,000 or 94%. Positive predictive value indicates what proportion of patients with positive FOBT actually have polyps, 60/120 or 50%. The only correct answer is for negative predictive value, the proportion of patients with a negative FOBT who do not have polyps, 940/980 or 96%. Question: 1193 Which of the following procedures is an indication forsubacute bacterial endocarditis prophylaxis in a susceptiblepatient? A. Routine dental filling B. Circumcision C. Cardiac catheterization D. Root canal E. Tympanostomy tube insertion Answer: D Explanation: Subacute bacterial endocarditis (SBE) prophylaxis is recommended in patients at increased risk for bacterial endocarditis undergoing many common procedures. Patients at highest risk include those with complex cardiac abnormalities (e.g., tetralogy of Fallot), prosthetic valves, and surgically constructed shunts. Patients with problems such as hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, mitral valve regurgitation, and rheumatic heart disease are at moderate risk. Procedures likely to cause bacteremia include dental procedures (including routine cleaning and root canal) and surgery of the respiratory, gastrointestinal, and genitourinary tracts. SBE prophylaxis is not required for routine dental filling, x-rays, or fluoride treatments; cardiac catheterization; circumcision; intubation; flexible bronchoscopy; or pressure equalization tube insertion. Question: 1194 The Goldman scale helps determine the cardiac risk ofnoncardiac procedures. All of the following are risk factorsexcept: A. Age older than 70 years B. Signs of congestive heart failure C. Aortic operation D. Premature atrial contractions E. recent myocardial infarction (less than 6 months ago) Answer: D Explanation: The Goldman scale is a multifactorial index of cardiac risk in noncardiac surgical procedures. Risk is increased most with recent myocardial infarction, signs of congestive heart failure, more than five premature ventricular contractions per minute, and rhythm other than sinus or premature atrial contractions. Risk is increased somewhat less dramatically with age older than 70 years, significant aortic stenosis, general debilitation, major surgery, or an emergency operation. Question: 1195 Appropriate perioperative medication management includeswhich of the following? A. For patients with well-controlled diabetes, administer the full B. Never augment the dose of a corticosteroid in a patient on C. Continue beta-blockers the morning of surgery with a sip of D. Unless a patient quits smoking for 1 year, there is no E. Discontinue aspirin use the day before surgery to diminish the Answer: C Explanation: Patients with well-controlled diabetes should typically hold shortacting insulin and take one-half to two-thirds of their intermediate or long-acting insulin on the morning of surgery. Corticosteroids should be increased to reflect the stress of surgery, both perioperatively and postoperatively. Cardiac and antihypertensive medications can be given with a sip of water on the morning of surgery. Smoking cessation is valuable, even if it is only 6 weeks prior to surgery (and although less well proven, many authorities would recommend cessation if only for shorter periods). Aspirin and nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs ideally should be stopped 1 week prior to surgery. Question: 1196 The Public Health Service recommends five steps tois not one of the recommended steps? A. Asking a patient about tobacco use at every visit B. Advising all tobacco users to quit C. Assessing readiness to quit D. Administering the Fagerstrom nicotine dependence assessment E. Arranging follow-up G. effective smoking cessation counselinWhich of the following Answer: D Explanation: Although assessing nicotine dependence may play a role in smoking cessation, it is not part of the routine steps suggested by the Public Health Service. The other step is assisting the patient in quitting. Question: 1197 Which of the following is true regarding transmission oftuberculosis? A. D. patient is only considered infectious if three consecutive B. More than 1,000 bacilli are required to initiate a primary C. Infection is not possible without coming into direct contact D. E. PPwill turn positive within 48 hours of initial exposure. E. PPD will turn positive within 48 hours of initial exposure. Answer: A Explanation: Transmission of tuberculosis occurs primarily through inhalation of aerosolized bacilli. These bacilli can exist in droplet nuclei that can remain suspended in a room even if the patient is no longer present. As few as 1 to 10 bacilli entering an alveolus can cause infection. A single sputum demo containing acid-fast bacilli is diagnostic of active or recurrent tuberculosis. Question: 1198 A 29-year-old construction worker seeks a disability opinionfrom you regarding low back pain from a recent accident. Yourexamination is normal and you believe the patient isthe following? A. D. referral to a pain clinic B. Refusal to complete the disability form C. Discussion with the patient and family to explore job D. A referral to a pain clinic E. Prescription of an SSRI G. malingerinAn appropriate response might include which of Answer: C Explanation: Developing rapport with a patient seeking disability or workers compensation can be challenging. However, overzealous referral, inappropriate medicalization through overuse of tests and medications, and inadequate attention to job satisfaction and psychosocial issues can jeopardize longer term functional outcomes. Job satisfaction is highly associated with return to work and functional outcomes. Exploration of the psychosocial aspects of the patient's life, including family relationships, substance use, and psychiatric symptoms, is important. The physician should emphasize functional outcomes and address underlying problems. Question: 1199 When considering a living will or a durable power ofattorney for health care, which of the following is true? A. D. living will takes precedence over the durable power of B. A living will allows the patient to choose a health care proxy C. Either one can be easily revoked by the patient, either orally D. A living will takes precedence over the durable power of E. Both a living will and a durable power of attorney must be Answer: C Explanation: The content of advance directives documents is regulated by state laws. The durable power of attorney for health care allows patients to choose someone they trust to make health care decisions for them if they are unable to do so. A patient can easily and immediately revoke either document with a simple oral statement. The two documents serve different purposes in health care decisions, and one does not take precedence over the other. For More exams visit https://killexams.com/vendors-exam-list Kill your test at First Attempt....Guaranteed! | ||||||||
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Obtaining these credentials is one step toward ensuring that your skills remain relevant for a long time: Best IT governance certificationsIT governance provides structure for aligning a company’s IT with its business strategies. Organizations faced with compliance rigors always need experienced IT pros who can see the big picture and understand technology risks. This means certified IT governance professionals are likely to remain in high demand. Earning one of the following certifications proves a commitment to understanding the role of IT governance and its position in a company’s current and future success. Getting certified can validate your expert knowledge and lead to advanced career opportunities. Best system administrator certificationsAn IT system administrator is responsible for managing and maintaining the information technology infrastructure within an organization. The position demands sought-after career skills, ranging from configuring and maintaining servers and clients to managing access controls, network services, and addressing application resource requirements. If you’re in charge of managing modern servers, there’s a long list of tools and technologies that system administrators must master. Obtaining some of the most prominent system administrator certifications can demonstrate your mastery to potential employers. Best ITIL certificationsITIL, or Information Technology Infrastructure Library, was developed to establish standardized best practices for IT services within government agencies. Over the ensuing four decades, businesses of all types embraced, modified, and extended ITIL, shaping it into a comprehensive framework for managing IT service delivery. The ITIL framework remains the benchmark for best practices in IT service and delivery management, offering certification programs that cater to IT professionals at all levels. These training and certification courses ensure that IT professionals stay well-prepared for the ongoing evolution in IT service delivery management. There are four certifications in the ITIL certification program: Best enterprise architect certificationsAn IT enterprise architect is responsible for designing and managing the overall structure and framework of an organization’s information technology system. Enterprise architect certifications are among the highest that an IT professional can achieve; fewer than 1 percent ultimately reach this level. Enterprise architects are among the highest-paid employees and consultants in the tech industry. These certifications can put IT professionals on a path to many lucrative positions. The average worker earns over six figures annually. Some top enterprise architect certifications are listed below: To become an enterprise IT architect, you’ll need knowledge of systems deployment, design and architecture, as well as a strong business foundation. Best CompTIA certificationsCompTIA is a nonprofit trade association made up of more than 2,000 member organizations and 3,000 business partners. The organization’s vendor-neutral certification program is one of the best recognized in the IT industry. Since CompTIA developed its A+ credential in 1993, it has issued more than two million certifications. CompTIA certifications are grouped by skill set and focus on the real-world skills IT professionals need. Armed with these credentials, you can demonstrate that you know how to manage and support IT infrastructure. Best Oracle certificationsA longtime leader in database software, Oracle also offers cloud solutions, servers, engineered systems, storage, and more. The company has more than 430,000 customers in 175 countries. Today, Oracle’s training program offers six certification levels that span 16 product categories with more than 200 individual credentials. Considering the depth and breadth of this program — and the number of Oracle customers — it’s no surprise that Oracle certifications are highly sought after. Vendor-specific certifications address a particular vendor’s hardware and software. For example, you can pursue Oracle certifications and Dell certifications to become an expert in those companies’ environments. Best business continuity and disaster recovery certificationsBusiness continuity and disaster recovery keep systems running and data available in the event of interruptions or faults. These programs bring systems back to normal operation after a disaster has occurred. Business continuity and disaster recovery certifications are seeing a healthy uptrend as new cloud-based tools grow in popularity. While business continuity planning and disaster recovery planning have always been essential, they’re becoming more critical than ever — and IT certifications are following suit. The proposal by the major cardiovascular societies in the US to form a new board of cardiovascular medicine to manage initial and ongoing certification of cardiologists represents something of a revolution in the field of continuing medical education and assessment of competency. Five US cardiovascular societies — the American College of Cardiology (ACC), the American Heart Association (AHA), the Heart Failure Society of America (HFSA), the Heart Rhythm Society (HRS), and the Society for Cardiovascular Angiography & Interventions (SCAI) — have now joined forces to propose a new professional certification board for cardiovascular medicine, to be known as the American Board of Cardiovascular Medicine (ABCVM). The ABCVM would be independent of the American Board of Internal Medicine (ABIM), the current organization providing maintenance of certification for cardiologists as well as many other internal medicine subspecialties. The ABIM's maintenance of certification process has been widely criticized for many years and has been described as "needlessly burdensome and expensive." The ABCVM is hoping to offer a more appropriate and supportive approach, according to Jeffrey Kuvin, MD, a trustee of the ACC, who has been heading up the working group to develop this plan. Kuvin, who is chair of the cardiology at Northwell Health, Manhasset, New York, a l arge academic healthcare system, explained that maintenance of certification has been a subject of discussion across the cardiovascular community for many years, and the ACC has a working group focused on the next steps for evaluation of competency, which he chairs. "The subject of evaluation of competence has been on the mind of the ACC for many years and hence a work group was developed to focus on this," Kuvin noted. "A lot of evolution of the concepts and next steps have been drawn out of this working group. And now other cardiovascular societies have joined to show unification across the house of cardiology and that this is indeed the way that the cardiovascular profession should move." "Time to Separate from Internal Medicine"The general concept behind the new cardiology board is to separate cardiology from the ABIM. "This is rooted from the concept that cardiology has evolved so much over the last few decades into such a large multidimensional specialty that it really does demarcate itself from internal medicine, and as such, it deserves a separate board governed by cardiologists with collaboration across the entirely of cardiology," Kuvin said. Cardiology has had significant growth and expansion of technology, tools, medications, and the approach to patients in many specialities and subspecialties, he added. "We have defined training programs in many different areas within cardiology; we have our own guidelines, our own competency statements, and in many cases, cardiology exists as its own department outside of medicine in many institutions. It's just time to separate cardiology from the umbrella of internal medicine." The new cardiology board would be separate from, and not report to, the ABIM; rather, it would report directly to the American Board of Medical Specialties (ABMS), the only recognized medical certification body in the US. What Are the Proposed ChangesUnder the present system, managed by the ABIM, clinicians must undergo two stages of certification to be a cardiologist. First, they have to pass the initial certification test in general cardiology, and then exams in one of four subspecialties if they plan to enter one of these, including interventional cardiology, electrophysiology, advanced heart failure or adult congenital heart disease. Next, clinicians enter the maintenance of certification phase, which can take three different forms: 1) taking another recertification test every 10 years; 2) the collaborative maintenance pathway — a collaboration between ACC and ABIM, which includes evaluation, learning and a certified test each year; or 3) longitudinal knowledge and assessment — in which the program interacts with the clinician on an ongoing basis, sending secured questions regularly. All three of these pathways for maintenance of certification involve high stakes questions and a set bar for passing or failing. Under the proposed new cardiology board, an initial certification test would still be required after fellowship training, but the maintenance of certification process would be completely restructured, with the new approach taking the form of continuous learning and assessment of competency. "This is an iterative process, but we envision with a new American Board of Cardiovascular Medicine, we will pick up where the ABIM left off," Kuvin notes. "That includes an initial certifying examination for the five areas that already exist under the ABIM system but with the opportunities to expand that to further specialties as well." He points out that there are several areas in cardiology that are currently not represented by these five areas that warrant some discussion, including multimodality imaging, vascular heart disease, and cardio-oncology. "At present, everybody has to pass the general cardiology test and then some may wish to further train and get certified in one of the other four other specific areas. But one subject that has been discussed over many years is how do we maintain competency in the areas in which clinicians practice over their lifetime as a cardiologist," Kuvin commented. He said the proposed cardiology board would like to adhere to some basic principles that are fundamental to the practice of medicine. "We want to make sure that we are practicing medicine so that our patients derive the most benefit from seeing a cardiologist," he said. "We also want to make sure, however, that this is a supportive process, supporting cardiologists to learn what they know and more importantly what they don't know; to identify knowledge gaps in specific area; to help the cardiologist fill those knowledge gaps; to acknowledge those gaps have been filled; and then move on to another area of interest. This will be the focus of this new and improved model of continuous competency." The proposed new board also says it wants to make sure this is appropriate to the area in which the clinician is practicing. "To take a closed book certified test every 10 years on the world of cardiology as happens at the current time – or the assessments conducted in the other two pathways – is often meaningless to the cardiologist," Kuvin says. "All three current pathways involve high stakes questions that are often irrelevant to one’s clinical practice." Lifelong Learning"The crux of the changes we are proposing will be away from the focus of passing a test towards a model of helping the individual with their competency, with continuous learning and evaluation of competency to help the clinician fill in their knowledge gaps," he explains. He described the new approach as "lifelong learning," adding that, instead of it being "a punitive pass/fail environment with no feedback, which causes a lot of discontent among clinicians," it will be a supportive process, where a clinician will be helped in filling their knowledge gaps. "I think this would be a welcome change not just for cardiology but across medical specialties," Kuvin said. He also pointed out the ABMS itself is considering a continuous competency approach, and the proposed new cardiology board aims to work with the ABMS to make sure that their goals of continuous competency assessment are matched. "The world has changed. The ability to access information has changed. It is no longer imperative for a clinician to have every piece of knowledge in their brain, but rather to know how to get knowledge and to incorporate that knowledge into clinical practice," Kuvin noted. "Competency should not involve knowledge alone as in a closed book exam. It is more about understanding the world that we live in, how to synthesize information, where we need to Excellerate knowledge and how to do that." Kuvin acknowledged that asking clinicians questions is a very helpful tool to identify their knowledge base and their knowledge gaps. "But we believe the clinician needs to be given resources – that could be a conference, an article, a simulation - to fill that knowledge gap. Then we could ask clinicians some different questions and if they get those right then we have provided a service." Tactile skills for cardiologists needing to perform procedures – such as interventionalists or electrophysiologists may be incorporated by simulation in a technology-based scenario. On how often these assessments would take place, Kuvin said that hadn't been decided for sure. "We certainly do not think an assessment every 10 years is appropriate. We envision, instead of an episodic model, it will be rather a lifelong journey of education and competency. This will involve frequent contact and making sure knowledge gaps are being filled. There are criteria being set out by the ABMS that there should be a certain number of touch points with individuals on an annual as well as a 5-year basis to make sure cardiologists are staying within specific guardrails. The exact nature of these is yet to be determined," he said. Kuvin added that it was not known yet what sort of hours would be required but added that "this will not be a significant time burden." What is the Timeframe?The application to the ABMS for a separate cardiology board is still ongoing and has not yet received formal acceptance. Representatives from the five US cardiovascular societies are in the initial stages of formulating a transition board. "The submission to the ABMS will take time for them to review. This could take up to a year or so," Kuvin estimates. This is the first time the ABMS has entertained the concept of a new board in many years, he noted. "It will be a paradigm shift for the whole country. I think that cardiology is really at the forefront and in a position where we can actually do this. If cardiovascular medicine is granted a new board, I think this will help change the approach of how physicians are assessed in terms of continuous competency not just in cardiology but across all specialties of medicine." He added: "We are confident that we can work within the construct of the ABMS guidelines that have been revised to be much more holistic in the approach of continuous competence across the board. This includes thinking beyond rote medical knowledge and thinking about the clinician as a whole and their abilities to communicate, act professionally, work within a complex medical system, utilize medical resources effectively. These all have to be part of continuous competence." How Much Will This Cost?Noting that the ABIM has received criticism over the costs of the certification process, Kuvin said they intend to make this "as lean a machine as possible with the focus on reducing the financial [burden] as well as the time burden for cardiologists. It is very important that this is not cumbersome, that it is woven into clinical practice, and that it is not costly." But he pointed out that building a new board will have significant costs. "We have to think about developing initial board certification examinations as well as changing the paradigm on continuous certification," he said. "This will take some up-front costs, and our society partners have decided that they are willing to provide some start-up funds for this. We anticipate the initial certification will remain somewhat similar in price, but the cost of ongoing continuous competency assessment will be significantly reduced compared to today's models." Kuvin said the collaboration of the five participating US cardiovascular societies was unprecedented. But he noted that while the transition board is beginning with representatives of these individual societies, it will ultimately be independent from these societies and have its own board of directors. He suggested that other societies representing other parts of cardiology are also interested. "Cardiology has recognized how important this is," he said. "Everybody is excited about this." CAMBRIDGE, England, January 02, 2024--(BUSINESS WIRE)--RealVNC, a global leader in remote access solutions, today announced it has received ISO/IEC 27001 certification, reaffirming its commitment to maintaining the highest standards of information security, data protection and compliance with legal and regulatory requirements. ISO 27001 is the world's best-known standard for establishing and maintaining an Information Security Management System (ISMS). Certification means that RealVNC has put systems in place to manage risk related to the security of data owned or processed by the company, and that this system complies with the stringent requirements of the ISO27001 standard. By implementing the ISO 27001 information security standard, RealVNC empowers users with industry-leading remote access solutions while ensuring the highest standards for risk management, cyber security, resilience, operational excellence, and safeguarding customer data. "ISO 27001 certification reinforces that security is at the forefront of everything we do, not only in the products we build, but how we operate as a business," said Andrew Woodhouse, Chief Information officer at RealVNC. "This further solidifies RealVNC's position as the world's most secure remote access solution and gives our customers confidence that we go above and beyond to protect their information and maintain the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of data. We are proud to join an exclusive group of global organizations renowned for their advanced information security practices." About RealVNC RealVNC remote access and remote support solutions comply with or support numerous industry and government standards and regulations. In addition to being ISO27001 certified, RealVNC is GDPR compliant, and supports compliance with HIPAA, PCI-DSS and many other industry regulations. For more information on RealVNC's award-winning remote access and support solutions, please visit www.realvnc.com. About the ISO/IEC 27001 Standard ISO 27001 is an internationally recognized standard that sets out the requirements for establishing, implementing, maintaining, and continually improving an Information Security Management System (ISMS). Developed by the International Organization for Standardization (ISO) and the International Electrotechnical Commission (IEC), ISO 27001 provides a systematic approach to managing sensitive company information and ensuring its confidentiality, integrity, and availability. By achieving this certification, organizations demonstrate their commitment to protecting sensitive data and establishing effective information security controls. RealVNC® - Remote access software for desktop and mobile | RealVNC View source version on businesswire.com: https://www.businesswire.com/news/home/20240102952305/en/ Contacts Ned Vaught SAN FRANCISCO, Dec. 12, 2023 (GLOBE NEWSWIRE) -- Cribl, the data engine for IT and Security, today announced it has received the ISO 27001 certification for its Information Security Management System (ISMS), ensuring its suite of products meets the highest standard of data security for global customers and partners. This certification further strengthens Cribl’s commitment to security and compliance, building on its previous completion of the SOC 2 Type II attestation and its ongoing commitment to global data privacy regulations like the European Union’s General Data Protection Regulation. ISO 27001 is a globally recognized information security management system standard published by the International Organization for Standardization (ISO) and the International Electrotechnical Commission (IEC). Cribl’s certification was issued by A-LIGN, an independent and accredited certification body based in the United States, upon the company’s successful completion of a formal audit process. “Cribl is committed to providing organizations with choice and control over their data, and part of that control is ensuring the highest level of security for our customers and partners,” said Matthew Kelly, Chief Legal Officer at Cribl. “This certification reaffirms our commitment to maintaining the highest standards of information security across our entire suite of products, and we look forward to continuing to deliver innovative, best-in-class solutions that deliver customers the flexibility and control to safely unlock the full value of their data.” Compliance with this internationally recognized standard demonstrates Cribl’s security management program is comprehensive and follows leading practices. The scope of its ISO 27001 certification includes the controls, activities, systems, and policies associated with development and support of Cribl Stream, Cribl Edge, and Cribl Search, as well as Cribl hosted and managed solutions accessed via Cribl.Cloud. Learn more about Cribl’s security and compliance policies and certifications at https://cribl.io/security-compliance. About Cribl Media Contacts Amy McDowell (IN BRIEF) Indra has secured the ISO 31030 certification from AENOR, becoming the first Spanish company to do so. The certification acknowledges Indra’s effective management of the travel risks faced by its professionals during business trips, prioritizing their well-being, health, safety, and security. Indra’s compliance with ISO 31030 ensures the protection of employees throughout their travel, from pre-departure preparations to return, offering risk information, monitoring, and robust safety protocols. The company’s commitment to safeguarding its workforce, especially given its global presence, is underscored by its Travel Management System, SIGEDES, and other applications for real-time assistance and geolocation in high-risk situations. This certification enhances trust among Indra’s professionals and demonstrates the organization’s dedication to best practices in safety and talent management. (PRESS RELEASE) MADRID, 4-Jan-2024 — /EuropaWire/ — Indra has become the first Spanish company to be awarded ISO 31030 (Travel Risk Management) certification from AENOR, which recognizes that the company effectively manages the risk of business travel of its professionals, with a model that guarantees their well-being, health, safety and security. This certification is part of the company’s global risk strategy, which has the ISO 31000 Risk Management Framework certification. Compliance with ISO 31030 ensures that Indra complies with its duty to protect the safety and security of its employees, who travel on its behalf or are under its responsibility, throughout the duration of their trip and stay abroad: from prior preparation, providing them with information on risk situations, with the appropriate monitoring according to the risk level of the country to which they travel, as well as on their return to their work center. Key to obtaining this certification was the participation and involvement in the audit of different areas of the company, such as Corporate Security, Insurance, Global Mobility, Joint Prevention Service, Global Risks, Purchasing, Information Security and Privacy. AENOR, a leading entity in building trust, has highlighted among Indra’s strengths the SIGEDES Travel Management System, which offers professionals clear information on the risks to which they are exposed when traveling, with a complete guide to the country, risk level, and corporate requirements to ensure that their trip is safe through various mechanisms and protocols. The audit team also highlighted that risk prevention in travel is perceived to be integrated into Indra’s DNA, contributing to the low incidence despite the large number of trips the company makes throughout the year. With a local presence in 46 countries and business operations in more than 140 countries, travel is a regular part of Indra’s business. In 2023 alone, more than 11,500 trips were made, with a net traveling population of 3,200. Jacqueline Peña, Corporate Security Manager, emphasized that “the success of a company depends on the risk it is willing to take and its ability to manage it. We understand that this certification has a high value for our company and its professionals and shows the commitment of the Board of Directors and Senior Management of the Indra Group to safety and talent, since people are at the heart of our company.” Nicolás Henríquez, AENOR’s Business Development Director, emphasized that “this certification allows Indra to build trust among its professionals and to do so with the backing of the most highly valued brand. This is a new step that demonstrates the organization’s commitment to best practices.” With ISO 31030 certification, Indra protects its staff, improves employee confidence in health and safety provisions regarding travel, contributes to business continuity capability worldwide, demonstrates the company’s ability to control its risks effectively and efficiently, and has the ability to act proactively to reduce travel incidents and address them in a timely and efficient manner, should they occur. Indra and its areas involved continuously assess external risks and review their internal processes to ensure the protection of their personnel. The company periodically undergoes independent audits for the certification of its management and production systems in accordance with the main international standards. Pioneers in the safety of professionals For Indra, it is of utmost importance to certain the integrity, safety and health of its professionals. To this end, it has a pioneering system in corporate security, SIGEDES, the Travel Management System, a set of applications that monitor and assist displaced personnel, and which also allows the rapid location of professionals in high-risk countries. Thanks to this platform, professionals have immediate and real-time access to health and safety information in more than 190 countries and 800 cities, information on vaccinations, diseases, hospitals, emergency services, weather alerts and corporate travel requirements (authorizations, travel insurance…). All these data are analyzed from the Integrated Security Control Center, a 24/7/365 service center, which centralizes the management of the different Indra’s physical security subsystems and applications at an international level. The company also applies the latest technology to ensure the safety of its professionals through a SILODES emergency geolocation service, a system that allows users to locate and communicate in the event of potential risk situations such as natural disasters, terrorist attacks, loss of contact in remote regions, or when traveling in general. About Indra Indra (www.indracompany.com) is one of the leading global technology and consulting companies, and a world leader in technological engineering for the aerospace, defence and mobility markets and digital transformation and information technologies in Spain and Latin America through its subsidiary, Minsait. Its business model is based on a comprehensive range of proprietary products, with an end-to-end, high-value approach and a significant innovative component, making it the technological partner for the digitalization and key operations of its clients around the world. Sustainability forms part of its strategy and culture in order to overcome current-day and future social and environmental challenges. In the 2022 fiscal year, Indra achieved revenue totaling €3.851 billion, with almost 57,000 employees, a local presence in 46 countries and business operations in over 140 countries. About AENOR AENOR contributes to the transformation of society by building trust between organizations and individuals through compliance assessment services (certification, inspection and testing), training and information. It is the leading trust-building entity in Spain. Media Contact: Communication & Media Relations SOURCE: Indra MORE ON COMPANY NAME, ETC.: EDITOR'S PICK:
GreenMantra Technologies Announces Exclusive Distribution Relationship with HARKE GROUP ISO27001 certification further reaffirms RealVNC's commitment to Information Security and safeguarding customer data RealVNC, a global leader in remote access solutions, today announced it has received ISO/IEC 27001 certification, reaffirming its commitment to maintaining the highest standards of information security, data protection and compliance with legal and regulatory requirements. ISO 27001 is the world's best-known standard for establishing and maintaining an Information Security Management System (ISMS). Certification means that RealVNC has put systems in place to manage risk related to the security of data owned or processed by the company, and that this system complies with the stringent requirements of the ISO27001 standard. By implementing the ISO 27001 information security standard, RealVNC empowers users with industry-leading remote access solutions while ensuring the highest standards for risk management, cyber security, resilience, operational excellence, and safeguarding customer data. “ISO 27001 certification reinforces that security is at the forefront of everything we do, not only in the products we build, but how we operate as a business,” said Andrew Woodhouse, Chief Information officer at RealVNC. “This further solidifies RealVNC's position as the world's most secure remote access solution and gives our customers confidence that we go above and beyond to protect their information and maintain the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of data. We are proud to join an exclusive group of global organizations renowned for their advanced information security practices.” About RealVNC RealVNC remote access and remote support solutions comply with or support numerous industry and government standards and regulations. In addition to being ISO27001 certified, RealVNC is GDPR compliant, and supports compliance with HIPAA, PCI-DSS and many other industry regulations. For more information on RealVNC's award-winning remote access and support solutions, please visit www.realvnc.com. About the ISO/IEC 27001 Standard ISO 27001 is an internationally recognized standard that sets out the requirements for establishing, implementing, maintaining, and continually improving an Information Security Management System (ISMS). Developed by the International Organization for Standardization (ISO) and the International Electrotechnical Commission (IEC), ISO 27001 provides a systematic approach to managing sensitive company information and ensuring its confidentiality, integrity, and availability. By achieving this certification, organizations demonstrate their commitment to protecting sensitive data and establishing effective information security controls. RealVNC® - Remote access software for desktop and mobile | RealVNC
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